- #1
asimov42
- 377
- 4
Folks, I'm back to reading Muller's paper (https://arxiv.org/pdf/1606.07975.pdf) about the flow of time. He postulates that time is expanding similar the way space is expanding (ok... so if you can swallow that). He asks: "why are the new nows created at the end of time, rather than uniformly throughout time, in the same way that new space is uniformly created throughout the universe?"
One answer is he gives is "that a physics principle of causality accounts for the apparent asymmetry in the creation of new space and new time. In this view, we postulate that new time can be created only at the end of previous time, since its creation earlier would disrupt the causal connection of past events."
The above is fine from a relativistic perspective, but I'm wondering if it also extends to a quantum mechanical perspective? That is, can someone give an example of an inconsistency in that would result in QM (QFT) through the creation of new time throughout the past? (e.g., what would change - measurements, observers, etc.?)
I'm less familiar with causality in a quantum setting...
One answer is he gives is "that a physics principle of causality accounts for the apparent asymmetry in the creation of new space and new time. In this view, we postulate that new time can be created only at the end of previous time, since its creation earlier would disrupt the causal connection of past events."
The above is fine from a relativistic perspective, but I'm wondering if it also extends to a quantum mechanical perspective? That is, can someone give an example of an inconsistency in that would result in QM (QFT) through the creation of new time throughout the past? (e.g., what would change - measurements, observers, etc.?)
I'm less familiar with causality in a quantum setting...
Last edited: