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Bad beat

  1. Mar 13, 2008 #1
    I recently got beat in playing poker in the worst way that I have ever seen before. I was playing on a poker site online (pokerstars) and got beat with four of a kind to a higher four of a kind. The game was texas hold'em. For those of you who don't know texas hold'em, that means you get dealt 2 hole cards and combine the 2 hole cards with 5 community cards to make your best 5 card hand. As you all probably know there are 52 cards in the deck with 4 different suits and 13 different rankings for each suit. Could someone please tell me the odds of losing with 4 of a kind, four 3's to be exact, in the game of texas hold'em.
     
  2. jcsd
  3. Mar 13, 2008 #2
    What beats 4-3's in Texas Hold Em'?

    4-anything higher
    flush
    royal flush
    full house

    Does a high enough two pair beat four threes?
     
  4. Mar 13, 2008 #3
    4 of anything higher beats 4 3's.

    not that might not need to know but the hands go as follows

    royal flush-10JQKA of one suit
    striaght flush-5 cards in sequential order of same suit
    4 of a kind-2222,3333,.....AAAA- AAAA being highest
    full house-55522 three of a kind with a pair
    three of a kind-QQQ
    2 pair-33JJ
    1 pair-AA
    high card


    card rankings-A K Q J 10 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2
    suits-clubs diamonds hearts spades
     
  5. Mar 14, 2008 #4
  6. Mar 14, 2008 #5

    nicksauce

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    Let's assume you hold 33 and on the board is 33XYZ... your opponent holds AB. So we need to find the probability that 4 out of {A,B,X,Y,Z} are equal. This would be
    (47/47) * (3/46) * (2/45) * (1/44) * 5C4 ~= 1/3036. There will need to be a slight correction since four 2's lose to four 3's.

    Now, let's assume you hold 33 and the board is 33XXY and X > 3. We need to find the probability your opponent holds XX. This would be (2/47) * (1/46) ~= 1/1081.

    Now let's assume you hold 33 and the board is 33XXX and X > 3. We need to find the probability your opponent holds XY. This would be ~= 1 / 23.

    So it all depends on what you define as your given variables.


    Maybe some mistakes here, my probability is a little rusty.
     
    Last edited: Mar 14, 2008
  7. Mar 14, 2008 #6

    nicksauce

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    Using Monte Carlo simulations with the program "pokerstove" http://www.pokerstove.com/download/ [Broken]

    I found the following probabilities

    Probability of winning given that you hold 33 and the board is 33XYZ -> 99.955%
    Probability of winning given that you hold 33 and the board is 33XXY -> 99.710%
    Probability of winning given that you hold 33 and the board is 33XXX -> 95.556%
    Probability of winning given that you hold 3X and the board is 333YY -> 99.899%
     
    Last edited by a moderator: May 3, 2017
  8. Mar 14, 2008 #7

    quasar987

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    What was the board when you played?
     
  9. Mar 14, 2008 #8

    nicksauce

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    Note also that the calculated probabilities are valid for being against one opponent and you should (roughly) multiply the probability by itself N times where N is the number of opponents in the hand.
     
  10. Mar 15, 2008 #9
    the board was AA333. I, of course, was holding Q3. So the odds of him flopping a quads are incredible, let alone me catching runner runner 33 for my quads. I have literally played millions of hands and have never seen that before in texas hold'em. Of course in other games like 5 card draw with wilds and so forth I have seen quads up against quads. I play poker maybe 5 days a week sometimes putting 5-12 hrs in a single session and I get quads maybe about once or twice a month. So you could imagine my disbelief when the guy flipped over quads to my quads. The worst part about it was that I was a big blind,ie. forced bet,
    so i had no choice but to play my hand. The guy didn't raise before the board cards were put out; I was doomed no matter what lol. (quads= four of a kind)
     
    Last edited: Mar 15, 2008
  11. Mar 15, 2008 #10

    quasar987

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    You had 1 chance in 1 thousand to lose that hand.

    I hope that wasn't no limit hold'em! :P
     
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