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- Thread starter jerromyjon
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Stephen Tashi

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Why would 2 variables with two possible values have a 1/4 probability of each combination of values? Is the probability that a randomly selected person is male and not retired equal to 1/4 ?

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- #4

Stephen Tashi

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That's clear. Now what is the question? Are you asking why ordinary probability theory gives an answer of 1/3 in the quantum entanglement problem? To answer that I, myself, would need to hear a statement of the entanglement problem you read about. Perhaps someone else knows the problem just from the mention of the word "entaglement".

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Aha! Browser history...

http://drchinese.com/David/Bell_Theorem_Easy_Math.htm

I'm going to read through it again hoping to catch what I missed or realize where I misunderstood.

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It makes the same case of what should be 5/9 chance turns out 50/50.

But just before reading that version I had the "aha!" moment and realised this is because entanglement gives 100% (or close to, ideally) chance of pairs being opposite spin in any 1 of the 3 axes. We can only measure 1. So then we double up pairs, and we measure 2 axes on 1 of each pair. Then when we think we can predict what the measurements of the other pair will be it turns out random?

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- #8

Nugatory

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Another very good resource for your level of understanding is this article.

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atyy

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Forget it I'm good thanks for the links everyone.

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Here's a recent proof...

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