A few weeks ago I created a discussion titled "How does Bell's inequalities rule out realism." Essentially my question was pertaining to how does removing realism retain locality and not violet Bell's inequality. Someone answered with the this, I'm not really happy with this explanation, but I understand it. However as I've been thinking it doesn't seem like this would produce the same predictable results that we observe in entanglement. I noticed that someone brought it up as well, saying, "If in an experiment locality is given. And realism is rejected in accounting for Bell violations, then how is it that this non realism is so consistent and derivable?" Any answers?