I read the following article (I think the author writes on this forum) and thought I understood the reasoning (at least a 0.333 chance of a match, whatever the setting, quantum mechanics for a 120 degree difference in angle predicts a 0.25 chance of a match, measurement shows it to be around 0.25 chance of a match).(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

http://www.drchinese.com/David/Bell_Theorem_Easy_Math.htm

But I was assuming that the result at a given angle would be the same if the same photon were tested again at that angle, and was was thinking that if further tests on the *same* particle could be made (in a thought experiment at least) then wouldn't you end up with the result for all three settings, and why couldn't it have been that at the beginning (as the combinations would be what was measured, and would be at the 0.25 probability of a match that they were measured to be)? I accept that it would be strange, because it would seem as though the combinations were contrived to score the 0.25 match given what we measured, and how could a physical reality react like that to the angles we choose to measure? I'm assuming I am missing something here. Is it perhaps that it is only when the first measurement is taken, and the particle materialises at a certain position that there is the 0.25 chance of a match, maybe after that the measurements are 0.333+ of a match, and that this is used for quantum encryption to check if something has already been observed. Just not sure. Any help appreciated.

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# Bell's Inequality Theorem

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