(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({}); 1. The problem statement, all variables and given/known data

This isn't really a hw problem but something I...felt like figuring out. I'm an EE student, so this isn't rly my game, but I'm giving it a hack anyway.

See the attachment for an outline of the problem.

The attachment shows the top view of a beam connected rigidly to a wall (the wall being the blackish part). What I want to derive is a function for the displacement of the beam w(x) for a force F applied at the tip of the beam (where "L2" is on the picture). (The beam would move into the page).

Would w(x) even be continuous? or would it be a piecewise function? In any case, I want to be able to find the bending in both regions for a force at the tip.

2. Relevant equations

...

3. The attempt at a solution

I started off with the region nearest to the wall. For this part, it is sort of well known that w(x) is:

[tex]w = \frac{F}{6 E {I_1}}(3 L x^2 - x^3)[/tex]

for a force F applied at the end of the first region.

Alright, onto the second part. The bending in the second region is governed by the same differential equation but w/ different boundary conditions:

[tex]

EI \frac{d^4 w}{d x^4} = 0 \\

[/tex]

[tex]w|_{x = L_1} = \frac{F}{6 E {I_1}}(3L_1^3 - L_1^3)[/tex]

[tex]\frac{\mathrm{d} w}{\mathrm{d} x}\bigg|_{x = 0} = \frac{F}{6 E {I_1}}(3L_1^2)[/tex]

[tex]\frac{\mathrm{d}^2 w}{\mathrm{d} x^2}\bigg|_{x = L} = 0[/tex]

[tex] -EI \frac{\mathrm{d}^3 w}{\mathrm{d} x^3}\bigg|_{x = L} = F[/tex]

And the solution the ODE is something like w(x) = c1*x^3 + c2*c^2 + c3*x + c4;

I can solve for the constants using some matrix algebra, but I'm going to skip that part because it's not really my concern.

After this, I have w(x) for the first region, and w(x) for the second region. I want to combine them, if possible. I'm not really sure where to go from here to combine them into one equation, as a function of the force F applied at the very end of the beam. I should be able to write F1 (the force applied at the end of the first region to get its displacement, sorry I didn't note this in the TeX) in terms of the force applied at the end of the second region, but I'm not sure how.

Any ideas on this?

My leading idea is to say something like: for a force applied at the end of the tip I can find the displacement at the boundary between at L1. then I can use F = k1/x to find the equivelant force at L1...or something.

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# Homework Help: Bending of multi-region beam

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