- #1

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When you sum over all the binomial probabilities from i=0 to n you should get 1, as this corresponds to the total probability of getting any outcome. I just don't understand what it is, that guarantees that you always get one when you sum over:

Ʃ(p)

^{i}(1-p)

^{n-i}[itex]\cdot[/itex]K(n,i)

Why is this sum always equal to 1?