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could someone possible make something clear for me - I have come across this notation for a binomial PMF formed from an underlying beurnolli distribution:

PS_{n}(\bar{p}n)\sim\sqrt{\frac{1}{2\pi n\bar{p}(1-\bar{p})}}exp

[n\varnothing(p,\bar{p}] ,\\

PS_{n}(\bar{p}n)=PMF-of-binomial-dist-from-underlying-binary-PMF\\

where,pz(1)=p>0,pz(0)=q>0,q=(1-p)

=I can understand that this is the binomial PMF with variance = npq, and the square root term is easy to understand. I dont understand the term raised to the exponential and how one can get from the beurnolli distribution to this binomial distribution, could someone please clarify

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# Binomial PMF - notation

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