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Biot Savart

  1. May 5, 2005 #1
    Just a quick question about finding the magnetic induction field B on the axis of a circular coil shown on page 7 on http://www.physics.gla.ac.uk/~dland/ELMAG305/Elmag305txt5.pdf
    I understand why the field must be along the x-axis but why does (dlxr )x become dlrsin(alpha)? alpha doesnt seem to be the angle between the dl and r, dlxr would equal |dl|| r |sin(x) where x would be the angle between the dl and r. My problem is x and alpha dont seem to be the same angle so i dont know how to advance with this problem. Any help?
     
  2. jcsd
  3. May 5, 2005 #2

    dextercioby

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    You can't denote the angle with "x",one of the axis with "Ox" and the sign for a vector/cross product with "x"...Let the angle be "alpha",the axis "Ox" and the sign [tex] \times [/tex].

    Daniel.
     
  4. May 5, 2005 #3
    I dont see why alpha wouldnt be that angle. What angle are you suggesting?

    A is the radius of the circle, and r is the line drawn from the center of the loop at a distance x_i away. You are integrating I along every dl, during which the radius A rides along its resident circle once.
     
  5. May 5, 2005 #4

    dextercioby

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    Oh,and it should be Biot-Savart-Laplace law...Laplace was the mathematician who made the formula up,while the other guys fooled around with magnets.

    The same story with Stefan-Boltzmann law...Boltzmann was the theorist,and Stefan the experimentalist.

    Daniel.
     
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