guys im bit confused with the statement borel cantelli lemma 2 :(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

"If the events En are independent and the sum of the probabilities of the En diverges to infinity, then the probability that infinitely many of them occur is 1"

this state if probability of A occur > 0 .

and if the probabilities of A diverges to infinity, then the probability that infinitely many of A occur is 1

the problem is

if probability of opposite A, event[not A] > 0

and if the probabilities of "not A" diverges to infinity

then the probability that infinetely many of [not A] occur is 1.

in other way the probability of A doest occur is 1 too?

this correct?

or i made a mistake ? thank you

**Physics Forums - The Fusion of Science and Community**

Dismiss Notice

Join Physics Forums Today!

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

# Borel Cantelli lemma Question

Loading...

Similar Threads - Borel Cantelli lemma | Date |
---|---|

Mistake using Borel-Cantelli Lemma | May 15, 2012 |

Is there a measure for every Borel σ-algebra? | Feb 11, 2012 |

What is a Borel set? | Oct 27, 2010 |

Borel fields and borel sets | Feb 17, 2010 |

Borel-Cantelli Lemma | Mar 10, 2008 |

**Physics Forums - The Fusion of Science and Community**