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By parts ?

  1. Dec 17, 2005 #1
    Could someone please point me forwards again.
    By integrating the following equation twice......
    [itex]\frac{1}{x^2}\frac{d}{dy}(x^2 \frac{dx}{dy}) = 0[/itex]
    I tried integrating by parts but came to a sticky end.
    many thanks
    skook
     
  2. jcsd
  3. Dec 17, 2005 #2

    Tide

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    I'm not sure what you're trying to do but it appears that

    [tex]x^2\frac{dx}{dy} = C[/tex]

    is a constant and you should be able to integrate that.
     
  4. Dec 19, 2005 #3
    Guess I was staring at it too hard. thanks
     
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