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Let F be a function defined on a open set E where [tex]E \in V[/tex]. F is said to be continuous at each point [tex]x \in V[/tex]. Which according to my textbook at hand can be written as [tex]F \in \mathcal{C}(E)[/tex]

But the expression [tex]F \in \mathcal{C}^{1}(E)[/tex] is that equal to saying that F have first order derivatives defined on the set E?

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# Homework Help: C vs C1 continuous

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