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Can acceleration be called directly propotional to inclined plain

  1. Oct 31, 2003 #1
    hi guys and girls i ma new here and need ur help
    my question goes that
    can acceleration be called directly propotional to inclined plain
     
    Last edited by a moderator: Feb 7, 2013
  2. jcsd
  3. Oct 31, 2003 #2

    chroot

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    An inclined plane is an object, not a quantity. I fail to see how anything can be "proportional" to an inclined plane any more than something could be "proportional" to an apple.

    Do you mean something like "is the magnitude of the acceleration of an object on an inclined plane proportional to the slope of that plane?"

    - Warren
     
  4. Oct 31, 2003 #3

    russ_watters

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    That would be my guess. Simple answer: yes. More complicated answer: depends on if you are sliding/rolling, friction (viscous?), air resistance, etc.
     
  5. Oct 31, 2003 #4

    turin

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    The acceleration of a block making frictionless contact with an inclined plane is proportional to the sine of the angle of inclination. For instance, for no incline, the acceleration is zero. For maximum incline (straight up and down), the acceleration is g. For a 45deg incline, the acceleration is ~0.7g.
     
  6. Nov 1, 2003 #5
    thnx guys u r right chroot i meant this "is the magnitude of the acceleration of an object on an inclined plane proportional to the slope of that plane?"
    --------------------------------------------------------------------------------sorry couldnt interpret it properly
     
  7. Nov 1, 2003 #6
    Welcome maryum2001!
     
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