- #1

- 5

- 0

where n goes from 1 to infinity.

The result should be (1/2)*(pi-x) when 0(x(pi

and -(1/2)*(pi+x) when -pi(x(0

I need someone to show me how to attack this problem.

Thanks

- Thread starter Bossieman
- Start date

- #1

- 5

- 0

where n goes from 1 to infinity.

The result should be (1/2)*(pi-x) when 0(x(pi

and -(1/2)*(pi+x) when -pi(x(0

I need someone to show me how to attack this problem.

Thanks

- #2

- 644

- 1

sin(nx)/n = RE[e^inx/n]

(Further Hint : log series)

-- AI

(Further Hint : log series)

-- AI

- #3

mathman

Science Advisor

- 7,890

- 460

Correction to TenaliRaman. sin is imaginary part, cos is real part.

- #4

mathwonk

Science Advisor

Homework Helper

2020 Award

- 11,093

- 1,295

I would try computing the fourier coefficents of x.

- #5

- 644

- 1

OOPS!mathman said:Correction to TenaliRaman. sin is imaginary part, cos is real part.

-- AI

- Last Post

- Replies
- 5

- Views
- 2K

- Last Post

- Replies
- 6

- Views
- 2K

- Replies
- 1

- Views
- 598

- Last Post

- Replies
- 2

- Views
- 2K

- Replies
- 2

- Views
- 3K

- Replies
- 3

- Views
- 2K

- Replies
- 1

- Views
- 3K

- Last Post

- Replies
- 11

- Views
- 4K

- Last Post

- Replies
- 4

- Views
- 882

- Replies
- 8

- Views
- 15K