I was reading this up on Wiki so I'll just give a quick overview and then ask my question.(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

Let [itex]\cal{S}[/itex] be an infinite sequence of sequences [itex](s_1,\; s_2,\: s_3,...,\; s_n)[/itex] such that each [itex]s_i[/itex] contains an infinite amount of elements that are either a [itex]0[/itex] or a [itex]1[/itex].

The sequence [itex]\cal{S}[/itex] is countable since every element belonging to the sequence can be mapped to [itex]\mathbb{N}[/itex] i.e it is bijective.

Now for the sake of simplifying, let [itex]n[/itex] represent the sequence number and [itex]m[/itex] be the element of the sequence.

For example let [itex]s_1 = (1,\; 0,\; 0,\; 1,... )[/itex] then [itex]s_{1,\; 1} = 1[/itex]

Let there exist a sequence [itex]s_0[/itex] such that the first element of [itex]s_0[/itex] is [itex]0[/itex] if the first element of the first sequence i.e [itex]s_{1,\; 1}[/itex] in [itex]\cal{S}[/itex] is [itex]1[/itex] otherwise let [itex]s_{0, 1}[/itex] be [itex]1[/itex]. This rule applies for all elements of [itex]s_0[/itex] such that any [itex]s_{0,\; n} \neq s_{n,\; n}[/itex]. This proves that [itex]s_0[/itex] is unique but how does it prove it's uncountable? I mean if [itex]n[/itex] represents the element number of the sequence [itex]s_0[/itex] and every [itex]n[/itex] can be mapped to a subset of [itex]\mathbb{N}[/itex] isn't it countable?

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# Cantor's Diagonal Argument

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