Is set theory, counting off members, realy indicative of any order of difference when neither set has a 'size' ? If my hotel has infinite rooms, I could accomodate both the real people and the integer people together! It seems to me, Cantors version of infinity inherantly assumes an end at some point. The fact that one infinite set includes infinite members (even an infinity of infinite members), does not make that set more infinite. It's a mixing of absolute and relative that is surely wrong ?