Casimir effect vs vdW forces

  • Thread starter alxm
  • Start date


Science Advisor
As I understand it, the Casimir effect is due to the quantized field, and can only be described with QED.
Also, van der Waals forces are supposedly a result of the Casimir effect.

Here's what I don't understand. Supposedly, an accurate solution to the Schrödinger equation - without a quantized field, but rather with instantaneous coulomb forces, does give vdW forces as a long-range electron correlation effect. (This is a important problem in DFT, where most correlation functionals are local and do not reproduce vdW effects)

Would someone more versed in QED care to reconcile this for me?
My working assumption is that that vdW forces are reproduced, but only approximately, with 'c=infinity' then. In which case I'm wondering: How good is that approximation?

Want to reply to this thread?

"Casimir effect vs vdW forces" You must log in or register to reply here.

Physics Forums Values

We Value Quality
• Topics based on mainstream science
• Proper English grammar and spelling
We Value Civility
• Positive and compassionate attitudes
• Patience while debating
We Value Productivity
• Disciplined to remain on-topic
• Recognition of own weaknesses
• Solo and co-op problem solving

Hot Threads