Hey,(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

This is just a small question about Cauchys theorem.

If there is a function f(z) such that int f(z)dz = 0 can you conclude f is analytic in and on the region of integration?

What I mean is can you work the theorem in reverse?

For example if the above is true over a region C which is a simple closed curve, is f(z) analytic both inside and on C?

**Physics Forums | Science Articles, Homework Help, Discussion**

Dismiss Notice

Join Physics Forums Today!

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

# Cauchys theorem

**Physics Forums | Science Articles, Homework Help, Discussion**