Hello. I'm not entirely sure how to go about asking these questions - so please bear with me if I trip up in the framing of them. Any helpful correction or advice is welcome, btw. I've done some reading up on how inflationary theory tries to solve the horizon problem... http://www.astronomynotes.com/cosmolgy/s12.htm http://philosophy-of-cosmology.ox.ac.uk/horizon-problem.html http://hyperphysics.phy-astr.gsu.edu/hbase/Astro/cosmo.html ...and how a pre-inflationary causal patch of uniform temperature is postulated to do this. So, is it reasonable to say that... A. Our universe can be considered to be this causal patch, stretched by inflation to a size far larger than any kind of cosmological horizon centered upon us? B. But our universe shouldn't be considered to be any causally disconnected regions that might have arisen from subsequent episodes of inflation? Thanks, Cerenkov.