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i met a proof to cayley hamilton theorem and have some questions.
It uses that lambda*I - A is invertible. But lambda is surely an eigenvalue of A and 1/(lamda*I - A) is not legit so how is it legal to use that.
It uses that lambda*I - A is invertible. But lambda is surely an eigenvalue of A and 1/(lamda*I - A) is not legit so how is it legal to use that.