- #1
vonZarovich
- 2
- 0
I am no mathematician, not even an expert in Gauge Theories, but I came across this article
http://arxiv.org/abs/1409.6716
(published here http://www.sciencedirect.com/science/article/pii/S0393044015002284)
when I was looking for some "condensed-matter-type-monopoles", and the author claims to have found a way to explain why electric charges are quantized without the need to magnetic monopoles.
As far as I understood the author uses an analogy between bundles and the electromagnetic field, which seems quite similar to the U(1) gauge formulation of electromagnetism, but he uses sort of high level mathematics (taking into account my own level on the subject) preventing me to tell if his theory explains charge quantization.
Can someone tell me if this is a solution to the problem?
I would also appreciate if someone could explain what he is doing using lower level mathematics, so I can actually follow (I am a graduate physics student working with applications of QFT in condensed matter).
http://arxiv.org/abs/1409.6716
(published here http://www.sciencedirect.com/science/article/pii/S0393044015002284)
when I was looking for some "condensed-matter-type-monopoles", and the author claims to have found a way to explain why electric charges are quantized without the need to magnetic monopoles.
As far as I understood the author uses an analogy between bundles and the electromagnetic field, which seems quite similar to the U(1) gauge formulation of electromagnetism, but he uses sort of high level mathematics (taking into account my own level on the subject) preventing me to tell if his theory explains charge quantization.
Can someone tell me if this is a solution to the problem?
I would also appreciate if someone could explain what he is doing using lower level mathematics, so I can actually follow (I am a graduate physics student working with applications of QFT in condensed matter).