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Is it a sign of downgrading morality? Or a breakthrough ?
Originally posted by Saint
I'm tired of bible, i prefer to read buddhism scriptures, they are more clearcut and profound than bible.![]()
Originally posted by Saint
The bible has many verses against homosexuality
Originally posted by Saint
i read buddhism scriptures in chinese.
i guess you do not know chinese.
I believe christianity is a false religion, therefore it will slowly compromise on many moral issues, because the bible has discrepancies and contradictions, up to human to interpret in the ways they prefer for their own good, and screw up at the end.
Many theologians have looked over this passage, and found that Soddom was almost certainly destroyed because it's inhabitations threatened to rape God's angellic messengers, and did rape the follower of God's daughter. It simply does not specifically link the destruction to homosexuality. Also, references to homosexuality as shameful etc were due to mistranslation.I mean, why did god destroy Soddom if not for the homosexual activitys?
I don't think this is reasonable. The bible does not explicitly state that blacks, or americans, or people called George Bush be allowed in church either. Rather it is assumed that as children of god, they all have the right to hear god's word, pass it on, and ask for forgiveness etc etc.Has anyone actually provided any scriptual reasoning for allowing gays in church?
You tell me.Originally posted by Saint
...i wonder how gays release their sexual desire ? doing anal sex? isn't it nasty?
Originally posted by Saint
doing anal sex? isn't it nasty?
Originally posted by eNtRopY
Women love it. Why shouldn't gay men?
Originally posted by Saint
why women like it?
is it more sensational ?![]()
Originally posted by BoulderHead
Only when your prostrate gland is stroked.
I take your chalange. That comes as easy too me. Romans Ch 1 verses 24-32.Originally posted by eNtRopY
Many? Name more than one. I challenge you. Furthermore, I guarantee you that you will not be able to find one from the New Testament.
I read an interesting article that showed an interesting way of showing how wrong this is.Now back in Biblical times, Sodomy was a plays of Homosexuals and adulter's.
I kinda figure the bible doesn't use brackets in it's formatting. Perhaps a case of retranslation until you find something convenient?As stated in Revilations, "But the cowardly, the unbelieving, the vile, the murderers, the sexually immoral"( this means homosexuals as well as adulterors)", those who practice magic arts, the idolaters and all liars--their place will be in the fiery lake of burning sulfur. This is the second death.".
I pity you. Sounds painful.As for the bracketing, that was for anyone who had their head stuck too far up their own @$$.
Funny that then. Since you admit your faith isn't based on the bible, where does it come from? Where does this interpretation allowing you to make pronouncements as to the judgement of god come from?So, I now will stand by my faith and defend it in any way possible.
God does love everyone unconditionally, I never said he hates gays. He hates their sins. Not them. Like all sinners, he wishes them to repent and try to not sin again. Aknologeing gays in the church would be saying that being homosexual is alright and that they can remain gay and still not be sinners. That was and is my point. i do not descrimate aginst them, i just wish for theem to repent. Acknoleging gays would be like acknoleging un-repentent murderers as active members of the church. As for judging, I am only human. I, like yourself, am unable to not judge anyone. And my faith is learned from the bible. I don't know how you twisted my words to get the idea that my faith didnt come from the the Bible.Originally posted by megashawn
But, isn't it atleast good, from a christian perspective, to get gays into church to hopefully save there immortal soul (or atleast there spincter). I mean, god is supposed to love everyone unconditionally.
I don't know how you twisted my words to get the idea that my faith didnt come from the the Bible.
You see, it is clear to me that the element of anti-homosexuality does not come from the bible, but your interpretation of the bible. As with your "brackets", nothing in the bible confirms homosexuality as being equivalent to sexually immoral, or adultery, but you insert it anyway. By this token, the impetus to your interpretation - the idea that holds the whole thing up cannot have come from the bible, but from your education etc. Thus your faith, or opinion that homosexuality is a sin is not from biblical fact. In general, we assume something not to be a sin until the bible specifically says it is, and using the sort of "interpretation" you used, you can say everything is a sin.It is open for intrepritation. I was mearly stateing my interpretation of the biblical passages.
Originally posted by Saint
don't hesitate, say it now!
I set out 5 verses below including 3 from the New Testament. But I am more interested in your logic. Why do you say, "Name more than one."? Why shouldn't one be enough? Do you think God should have to repeat himself before it means anything? I have to say I do not understand your reasoning at all.Originally posted by eNtRopY
Many? Name more than one. I challenge you. Furthermore, I guarantee you that you will not be able to find one from the New Testament.
eNtRopY
Everyone knows you don't lie with a man the same way as with a woman."You shall not lie with a male as with a woman. It is an abomination." - Leviticus 18:22
Also in that chapter... an eye for an eye and all the others we conveniently forget. Do you follow:"If a man lies with a male as he lies with a woman, both of them have committed an abomination. They shall surely be put to death. Their blood shall be upon them." - Leviticus 20:13
Mistranslation. See above."Likewise also the men, leaving the natural use of the woman, burned in their lust for one another, men with men committing what is shameful, and receiving in themselves the penalty of their error which was due." - Romans 1:27
The same sentence compares homosexuals to drunkards, whilst excusing female prostitutes. Does that mean alcohol is banned and prostitution should be legalised? The point of the statement is that judgement is made by God through saints, and that forgiveness comes from God. Man is not to judge, for man is full of sin. The passage is under the heading "Lawsuits among believers"."Do you not know that the unrighteous will not inherit the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived. Neither fornicators ... nor homosexuals ...will inherit the kingdom of God." - 1 Corinthians 6:9-10
Strange. Fornicators etc are not used in the translation I am reading. But you are nevertheless missing the context of the statement - the purpose of the passage is to stop people from teaching false laws. The repeated theme in all of this is Judge Not. Which is what all this is missing."the law is not made for a righteous person, but ... for fornicators, for sodomites ... and if there is any other thing that is contrary to sound doctrine" - 1 Timothy 1:9-10
Originally posted by Viper2838
...that was for anyone who had their head stuck too far up their own @$$.
Originally posted by Laser Eyes
I set out 5 verses below including 3 from the New Testament. But I am more interested in your logic. Why do you say, "Name more than one."? Why shouldn't one be enough? Do you think God should have to repeat himself before it means anything? I have to say I do not understand your reasoning at all.
Can someone tell me why this debate (which we have had many times and seem to keep having) about what the Bible actually says about homosexuality generates such heated emotions and personal insults?But seriously, thanks for reading between the lines of the Bible and being a total @sshole.
If you can't figue it out on your own...Originally posted by Laser Eyes
Can someone tell me why this debate (which we have had many times and seem to keep having) about what the Bible actually says about homosexuality generates such heated emotions and personal insults?