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Circular Motion Relatinship

  1. Oct 20, 2008 #1
    Alright so in one formula Fc= mv^2/r and another Fc= 4pi^2r/T^2


    Although the two formlas are the same Mathematicly but isnt Fc porportional to the inverse of the r as it is shown in the first one. So why is r directly porportional to Fc in the second one?
     
  2. jcsd
  3. Oct 20, 2008 #2

    olgranpappy

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    because if the angular velocity (2pi/T) is constant then v is directly proportional to r. Also, you are missing an m in your 2nd formula.
     
  4. Oct 20, 2008 #3
    No but isnt it supposed to be inversly proportional?
     
  5. Oct 21, 2008 #4

    olgranpappy

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    did you read what i wrote?
     
  6. Oct 21, 2008 #5
    Yes I understand this now thanks for the help :)
     
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