- #1
Zouatine
- 22
- 0
I am new here, so hi for all ^-^
I have a problem in the Clapeyron theorem, the work of a force by definition is equal to the force multiplied by the displacement, and in this theorem it says that the work = (1/2) * force * displacement. why there is 1/2 ?
I also saw Maxwell-Betti's theorem
it's says: we have a corp with two forces F1 and F2 and the displacement d1 of the force F1 and d2 of the force F2 so:
W = W1 + W2 + W '
W = [(1/2) * (F1) * (d1)] + [(1/2) * (F2) * (d2)] + [(F1) * (d ')]
d = displacement of the application point F1 under the effect of the force F2.
why there is no 1/2 in W '?
Thank you 'excuse my English is not good'
I have a problem in the Clapeyron theorem, the work of a force by definition is equal to the force multiplied by the displacement, and in this theorem it says that the work = (1/2) * force * displacement. why there is 1/2 ?
I also saw Maxwell-Betti's theorem
it's says: we have a corp with two forces F1 and F2 and the displacement d1 of the force F1 and d2 of the force F2 so:
W = W1 + W2 + W '
W = [(1/2) * (F1) * (d1)] + [(1/2) * (F2) * (d2)] + [(F1) * (d ')]
d = displacement of the application point F1 under the effect of the force F2.
why there is no 1/2 in W '?
Thank you 'excuse my English is not good'