Dismiss Notice
Join Physics Forums Today!
The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

Classical or quantum spinor

  1. Feb 28, 2009 #1
    The Dirac field is an anticommutating field. But what part of it is anticommutating? Is it the spinors, or the coefficient in front of the spinors? In quantum field theory I think it's the coefficients that anticommute, so that the spinors should commute, but not their coefficients. In classical field theory, the coefficients are just regular numbers, so then it must be that the spinors anticommute?
     
  2. jcsd
  3. Feb 28, 2009 #2

    Fredrik

    User Avatar
    Staff Emeritus
    Science Advisor
    Gold Member

    It's the creation and annihilation operators. The gamma matrices also satisfy anticommutation relations, but they are a lot less interesting. The anticommutation relations satisfied by the creation/annihilation operators are the reason why the particles that correspond to the Dirac field must be fermions.
     
  4. Feb 28, 2009 #3
    So if you have [tex]u_{\alpha}(p) u_{\beta}(k)[/tex], then this equals [tex]u_{\beta}(k) u_{\alpha}(p)[/tex], and not the negative? u(p) is the usual basis solution to the Dirac equation in momentum space.
     
  5. Mar 1, 2009 #4
    Exactly. There is no sign change. u(p) are not matrices, so they commute, just like vector components.

    Bob.
     
    Last edited: Mar 1, 2009
Know someone interested in this topic? Share this thread via Reddit, Google+, Twitter, or Facebook




Similar Discussions: Classical or quantum spinor
Loading...