Can someone explain this to me? I can't see why this is the case. Is this statement the result of some kind of mathematical proof or a statistical study?

This one is pretty neat Icebreaker, after a quick search this is what I found. Appaerently the work was done by Persi Diaconis(homepage link) who apparently found that because of the extra weight on one side of the coin it was biased when you spin it. You should be able to find some links through his homepage. Here is a write up from science news that gives a quick outline of this interesting research:

On Wikipedia there is a section on Coin Flipping that also references this phenomena. There are more details and links to the articles that goes further into why this happens. Enjoy and thanx!

Yes, but the problem is that it wasn't written if the fact was obtained by experiment, or, with the assumption of a perfect coin, was somehow derived. There could have been some fallacy with the "perfect coin" assumption.

I've always known that a coin flip was biased, but I had no idea that there is such a huge difference when the coin is spun.

It's 31 pages long and very detailed. Apparently not only is there emperical evidence to support the bias but there is also a rigorous mathematical description to back it up. Here is the abstract:

Seems there is a lot more to coin flipping than meets the eye!

Just kidding, I really dont know but I would bet that it is one specially made for that event. Would it be biased? According to the paer if it is flipped vigorously enough it is!