After a measurement a wavefunction collapses.(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

You measure the position of a particle, the particles assumes a definite position, let's say point C.

The coefficient of C is let's say c, so the probability that it takes that value is c²

Wavefunction collapses at C (actually in the vicinty of C ?)

A second measurement immediately after the first, you would have to yield C again. Because a physical experiment has to be reproducible.

So, immediately right after your collapse, you get C with a probability of 100% because it just collapsed.

My question is:

If you don't measure right immediately after your first measurement, the wavefunctions spreads out again, according to the original Schrodinger equation right?

If you perform the same measurement again on your particle, would it yield C again with probability 100% or c²

Please make your answer as simple as possible. I don't want to be bothered with Quantum Decoherence or Bell's paradox or Dirac Brakets at this point right now.

First chapter Griffiths and I got some basic notions of QM, but not that much. :)

**Physics Forums - The Fusion of Science and Community**

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

# Collapse Wavefunction

Loading...

Similar Threads - Collapse Wavefunction | Date |
---|---|

I Superposition state and wavefunction collapse | Dec 22, 2017 |

I Regarding consciousness causing wavefunction collapse | Jul 27, 2017 |

I What 'Collapses' the Wavefunction of the Universe? | Jan 17, 2017 |

I The nature of wavefunctions collapse | Dec 29, 2016 |

**Physics Forums - The Fusion of Science and Community**