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You measure the position of a particle, the particles assumes a definite position, let's say point C.

The coefficient of C is let's say c, so the probability that it takes that value is c²

Wavefunction collapses at C (actually in the vicinty of C ?)

A second measurement immediately after the first, you would have to yield C again. Because a physical experiment has to be reproducible.

So, immediately right after your collapse, you get C with a probability of 100% because it just collapsed.

My question is:

If you don't measure right immediately after your first measurement, the wavefunctions spreads out again, according to the original Schrodinger equation right?

If you perform the same measurement again on your particle, would it yield C again with probability 100% or c²

Please make your answer as simple as possible. I don't want to be bothered with Quantum Decoherence or Bell's paradox or Dirac Brakets at this point right now.

First chapter Griffiths and I got some basic notions of QM, but not that much. :)