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Collatz conjecture question

  1. Jun 5, 2007 #1
    Hey, i was reading about the Collatz conjecture, where, if you take a integer, divide it by 2 if its even and triple it then add one if it's odd, and do it over and over again, the result would be one. I was thinking, "wouldnt it have the same effect if you didnt triple odd numbers?" am i wrong?
     
  2. jcsd
  3. Jun 5, 2007 #2

    matt grime

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    "the same effect"? What do you mean? What you've just described is clearly different, and obviously converges to 1 (after any two operations, you must have decreased the number you started with, hence it must converge).
     
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