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## Main Question or Discussion Point

Hi,

If we have two commuting operators A and B, is true that any function of A will commute with any function of B? I have a result which takes [itex][L_{z},r^{2}]=0[/itex] and claims that [itex][L_{z},r]=0[/itex]. How can this be proved? Thank you

If we have two commuting operators A and B, is true that any function of A will commute with any function of B? I have a result which takes [itex][L_{z},r^{2}]=0[/itex] and claims that [itex][L_{z},r]=0[/itex]. How can this be proved? Thank you