- #1
Nikitin
- 735
- 27
Hi. Say a, A(a) and b are well behaving functions. Then say [a,b] = 0, i.e. a and b commute.
Why will this automatically mean that A=A(a) will commute with b? Can somebody give me an intuitive explanation, or link me to some proof?
Why will this automatically mean that A=A(a) will commute with b? Can somebody give me an intuitive explanation, or link me to some proof?