Dismiss Notice
Join Physics Forums Today!
The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

Commuting operators

  1. Sep 21, 2014 #1
    Hi. Say a, A(a) and b are well behaving functions. Then say [a,b] = 0, i.e. a and b commute.

    Why will this automatically mean that A=A(a) will commute with b? Can somebody give me an intuitive explanation, or link me to some proof?
     
  2. jcsd
  3. Sep 21, 2014 #2

    ShayanJ

    User Avatar
    Gold Member

    I think one way is taylor expanding A(a). Then [itex] [A(a),b]=c_0 [1,b]+c_1 [a,b]+c_2[a^2,b]+c_3[a^3,b]+...=0 [/itex].
     
Know someone interested in this topic? Share this thread via Reddit, Google+, Twitter, or Facebook




Similar Discussions: Commuting operators
Loading...