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- Thread starter gonadas91
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- #2

Svein

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No. You can conclude that the function is of the form [itex] H(x)+\sum_{n}\frac{c_{n}}{(z-z_{n})^{k_{n}}}[/itex], where H is analytic, z

- #3

mfb

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- #5

mfb

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A sum like$$\sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{1}{1+(n+c)^2}$$ should have an analytic result, and you can modify your sum to have that shape.

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- #7

Svein

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- #8

mfb

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The Basel problem and the Weierstrass factorization theorem could be interesting as well.

- #9

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Many thanks for the replies!

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