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## Main Question or Discussion Point

Hi

When we have f(n) [itex]\in[/itex] o(g(n)) and g(n) [itex]\in[/itex] O(H(n))

Can I proove that h(n)-f(n) [itex]\in[/itex] o(g(n))?

Obviously I don't want you to give me the answer, but some hints and maybe which definitions of O and o I should use.

Thanks

When we have f(n) [itex]\in[/itex] o(g(n)) and g(n) [itex]\in[/itex] O(H(n))

Can I proove that h(n)-f(n) [itex]\in[/itex] o(g(n))?

Obviously I don't want you to give me the answer, but some hints and maybe which definitions of O and o I should use.

Thanks