- #1

- 901

- 3

## Main Question or Discussion Point

A theorm I took down in class says:

Consider the analytic function f(z). The mapping w=f(z) is conformal at the point z0 if and only if df/dz at z0 is non-zero.

However, if df/dz does not exist at that point z0, is that point still a conformal mapping? That would make the function non-analytic and this wouldn't apply right?

Consider the analytic function f(z). The mapping w=f(z) is conformal at the point z0 if and only if df/dz at z0 is non-zero.

However, if df/dz does not exist at that point z0, is that point still a conformal mapping? That would make the function non-analytic and this wouldn't apply right?