Hi guys, I'm very confused by a slope question...I've read that for a person with mass m on an inclined frictionless slope, it's normal force perpendicular to the surface is always equal to the y-component of the weight. Why? I'm always thinking that since the person slides down, he can also be accelerating downwards which means there's a net resultant y-component force? Or is that impossible because at any point the net y force should be zero? Why then? Is that an assumption that the person never accelerate downwards? Thanks!!