I was asked to show whether this is true: f(x) is defined for all x in [a,b] with f(b) > f(a) [values given]. the values of f at any x in (a,b) is rational. So, is f(x) continous? I think this is not continuous as this seems like the question is trying to use intermediate value property to imply continuity. But I can;t think of a more proper way to proof the answer. Or am I wrong on this? Please give me some idea!