- #1
ovais
- 270
- 5
Hello all,
I am having hard time to know if the finite angular displacement really a scalar quantity?
In some books they say angular displacement when finite is Scalar and when infinitesimal small is Vector, with direction perpendicular to plane of circle government by right hand rule.
I tried to look for the explanation of the statement of the book over the Internet the explanation given in various blogs or sites is something I fail to understand. They say finite angular displacement doesn't obey the commutation law of vector addition that's why finite angular displacement is not a vector but treated as scalar.
Their attempt to make their point, couldn't explain me how finite angular displacement doesn't obey commutation law of vector addition( I think o should accept that if a quantity does obey commutation law of vector addition we shouldn't treat that quantity as a vector though I didn't find such direct statement in books ).
My questions are two:
1. Is it true that finite angular displacement not a vector in reality?
2. If answer to the 1st question is yes; how can this be explained in a logical and simplified way?
Regards:)
I am having hard time to know if the finite angular displacement really a scalar quantity?
In some books they say angular displacement when finite is Scalar and when infinitesimal small is Vector, with direction perpendicular to plane of circle government by right hand rule.
I tried to look for the explanation of the statement of the book over the Internet the explanation given in various blogs or sites is something I fail to understand. They say finite angular displacement doesn't obey the commutation law of vector addition that's why finite angular displacement is not a vector but treated as scalar.
Their attempt to make their point, couldn't explain me how finite angular displacement doesn't obey commutation law of vector addition( I think o should accept that if a quantity does obey commutation law of vector addition we shouldn't treat that quantity as a vector though I didn't find such direct statement in books ).
My questions are two:
1. Is it true that finite angular displacement not a vector in reality?
2. If answer to the 1st question is yes; how can this be explained in a logical and simplified way?
Regards:)