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## Homework Statement

Let the random variable Yn have the distribution b(n,p).

a)Prove that Yn/n converges in probability p.

b)Prove that 1 - Yn/n converges to 1 - p.

c)Prove that (Yn/n)(1 - Yn/n) converges in probability to p(1-p)

## Homework Equations

## The Attempt at a Solution

So I need to use Chebyshev's inequality to solve it. E[Yn/n] = (1/n)*E[Yn] = (1/n)*(np) = p

Var[Yn/n] = (1/n^2)*Var(Yn) =(1/n^2)*(npq) = pq/n

a)

[tex]P(|\frac{Yn}{n} - p |\geq \epsilon ) \leq \frac{p^2 q^2}{n^2 \epsilon^2} [/tex]

and as n approaches infinity [tex]\frac{p^2 q^2}{n^2 \epsilon^2} = 0[/tex] therefore Yn converges to p.

Is this correct?

Thank you.