I know this is like very basic, but my brain just somehow couldn't accept it!!(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

1. The problem statement, all variables and given/known data

I don't understand why does the sequence (r^{n}) converges to 0 as n -> infinity when -1<|r|<1

3. The attempt at a solution

i did quite a few ways to convince myself.

Firstly, we know that (1/r)^{n}<(1/r) only if 0<r<1. So by squeeze theorm, (1/r)^{n}converges to 0. Then it also holds for -1<r<0 cz |(1/r)^{n}| = (1/r)^{n}.

this way seems to be correct but it doesn't seems to be convincing enough.

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# Homework Help: Convergence of r^n

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