(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({}); 1. The problem statement, all variables and given/known data

Supposedly the attached equation, where [tex]\phi_m(r)[/tex] is an eigenfunction and [tex]A_m[/tex] is the inverse of the inner product of [tex]\phi_m[/tex], only converges on D, but not on B. Apparently we can only get convergence along both D and B if [tex]f(r,t)=0[/tex].

How can I prove this?

2. Relevant equations

[PLAIN]http://img204.imageshack.us/img204/5227/greenshot20100621175230.png [Broken]

3. The attempt at a solution

I am reading this in a paper and fail to see how such a proof can be brought about. Can someone provide a bit of guidance on how I can begin to prove this?

Thank you!

http://goo.gl/pSgc" [Broken]

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# Homework Help: Convergence of solution - vector integrals

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