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Convergence of solution - vector integrals

  1. Jun 21, 2010 #1
    1. The problem statement, all variables and given/known data

    Supposedly the attached equation, where [tex]\phi_m(r)[/tex] is an eigenfunction and [tex]A_m[/tex] is the inverse of the inner product of [tex]\phi_m[/tex], only converges on D, but not on B. Apparently we can only get convergence along both D and B if [tex]f(r,t)=0[/tex].

    How can I prove this?

    2. Relevant equations
    [PLAIN]http://img204.imageshack.us/img204/5227/greenshot20100621175230.png [Broken]

    3. The attempt at a solution
    I am reading this in a paper and fail to see how such a proof can be brought about. Can someone provide a bit of guidance on how I can begin to prove this?

    Thank you!

    http://goo.gl/pSgc" [Broken]
     
    Last edited by a moderator: May 4, 2017
  2. jcsd
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