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Forums
Mathematics
General Math
Convergence of this Laplace transformation
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[QUOTE="lukka98, post: 6569852, member: 694224"] I have a f(t) that is, e^(-t) *sin(t), now I calculate the Laplace transformation, that is: X(s) = 1 / ( 1 + ( 1 + s)^2 ) (excuse me but Latex seems not run ). Now I imagine the plane with Re(s), Im(s) and the magnitude of X(s). If i take Re(s) = -1 and Im(s) = 0, I believe I have X(s) = 1 ( s = -1, so from the formula X(s) = 1) and this seem correctly according to a graph that I see online. But if I put Re(s) = -1 and Im(s) = 0 in the integral, and I calculate it directly, I should get the same result...(?) but In that case is only the integral of sin(t) from 0 to infty that is not 1 absolutely. What is wrong? thanks [/QUOTE]
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Forums
Mathematics
General Math
Convergence of this Laplace transformation
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