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## Main Question or Discussion Point

Let

[tex]

f:]a,b[\to\mathbb{R}

[/tex]

be a continuously differentiable function, where [itex]]a,b[\subset\mathbb{R}[/itex] is some interval, and define

[tex]

f_n:]a,b[\to\mathbb{R},\quad

f_n(x)=\left\{\begin{array}{ll}

&\frac{f(x+1/n)-f(x)}{1/n},\quad x\in ]a,b-1/n[\\

&\textrm{something continuous},\quad x\in [b-1/n, b[\\

\end{array}\right.

[/tex]

Clearly we have a point wise limit [itex]f_n(x)\to f'(x)[/itex] as [itex]n\to\infty[/itex], but how common it is that this convergence is uniform? Is there some well known theorem that says that the convergence is uniform under some assumptions?

[tex]

f:]a,b[\to\mathbb{R}

[/tex]

be a continuously differentiable function, where [itex]]a,b[\subset\mathbb{R}[/itex] is some interval, and define

[tex]

f_n:]a,b[\to\mathbb{R},\quad

f_n(x)=\left\{\begin{array}{ll}

&\frac{f(x+1/n)-f(x)}{1/n},\quad x\in ]a,b-1/n[\\

&\textrm{something continuous},\quad x\in [b-1/n, b[\\

\end{array}\right.

[/tex]

Clearly we have a point wise limit [itex]f_n(x)\to f'(x)[/itex] as [itex]n\to\infty[/itex], but how common it is that this convergence is uniform? Is there some well known theorem that says that the convergence is uniform under some assumptions?

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