- #1

Math_Frank

- 27

- 0

## Homework Statement

Given the odd integral

[tex]\int_{a}^{b} f(x) dx[/tex] How do I prove that

f(x) -> 0 for [tex]x \to \infty[/tex]??

## The Attempt at a Solution

Is it? For the above to be true, then there exist an [tex]\epsilon > 0[/tex] such that

[tex]|\int_{a}^{b} f(x) dx-0| \leq \epsilon[/tex]?

I am stuck here!

Am I going the right way?

Sincerely

Frank