In its standard formulation, the CPT theorem says that any local Lorentz-covariant quantum field theorem will be CPT-invariant. What of the theorem's converse? I would suspect CPT-invariance alone would be too weak to guarantee locality and Lorentz-covariance, but are there perhaps additional restrictions that, combined with CPT-invariance, will do so? I've tried looking through some of the literature, but I can't find any analysis of this.(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

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# Converse of the CPT theorem

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