Proving Every Infinite Set Has a Countable Subset

In summary, the task is to prove that every infinite set has an infinite countable subset. This can be done by defining S_n as the set of the first n elements of the set A, and then picking a new element from A for each n. This results in the set X, which can be shown to be countable by constructing a bijection \phi from \mathbb{N} to X.
  • #1
Doom of Doom
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0
So, the task is to prove: Every infinite set has a infinite countable subset.2. A set [tex]X[/tex] is countable if there exists a bijection [tex]\phi: \mathbb{N}\rightarrow X[/tex]3. So here's what I have:

Let [tex]A[/tex] be an infinite set, and pick some [tex]a_{1}\in A[/tex]. Define [tex]S_{n}=\left\{a_{i} [/tex], [tex]i\in \mathbb{N} \left| 1\leq i \leq n \right\} [/tex].
Pick [tex]a_{n}\in (A - S_{n-1})[/tex] for each [tex]n \in \mathbb{N}[/tex], [tex]n>1[/tex].

Let [tex]X=\left\{a_{n}|n \in \mathbb{N}\right\}[/tex], and let [tex]\phi: \mathbb{N}\rightarrow X[/tex] by [tex]\phi(x)=a_{x}[/tex].

Then I can show that [tex]\phi[/tex] is a bijection, and thus I am done. Is this good? I'm sure there has to be a better way to do this.
 
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  • #2
I think it's alright. It's essentially what I suggested, but my answer has disappeared.. maybe it was too explicit..?
 
  • #3
Pere Callahan said:
I think it's alright. It's essentially what I suggested, but my answer has disappeared.. maybe it was too explicit..?

Your post didn't disappear. It's on the other thread called 'countable sbset'. Don't repost the same question Doom of Doom.
 
  • #4
Oh, I see, thanks Dick :smile:
 
  • #5
I am sorry. My internet crashed right when i submitted the post, then when I went back later I didn't see my original post, so I made a new one.
 

1. What does it mean for a set to be countable?

A set is countable if it can be put into a one-to-one correspondence with the set of natural numbers (0, 1, 2, 3, ...). This means that every element in the set can be assigned a unique natural number, and there are no elements left out.

2. How can we prove that every infinite set has a countable subset?

This can be proven using the diagonalization argument, which was first introduced by mathematician Georg Cantor. The idea is that we can construct a list of all the elements in an infinite set, and then use a diagonal argument to show that there must be an element missing from the list. This missing element can be paired with the first element in the list, and this process can be repeated infinitely to create a one-to-one correspondence with the set of natural numbers.

3. Is there a difference between a countably infinite set and an uncountably infinite set?

Yes, there is a significant difference. A countably infinite set can be put into a one-to-one correspondence with the natural numbers, while an uncountably infinite set cannot. This means that there are more elements in an uncountably infinite set than there are in a countably infinite set.

4. Can you give an example of a countable subset of an infinite set?

One example of a countable subset of an infinite set is the set of even numbers (0, 2, 4, 6, ...). This set can be put into a one-to-one correspondence with the natural numbers by pairing each even number with its corresponding half.

5. What are some real-world applications of proving every infinite set has a countable subset?

This proof has many applications in computer science, particularly in the fields of data compression and encryption. It also has implications in number theory and analysis, as well as in the study of infinite sets and their properties.

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