Counter term renormalization

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mandy96
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Currently, I am reading about counter term renormalization used to eliminate the infinities in the loop calculations involved in QFT calculations. I found somewhere that the insertion of mass counter terms in one loop diagrams is equivalent to the derivative of one loop diagram multiplied with mass counter term. I am not getting this point.. If anybody can help me with that it would be very helpful.. Thanks..
For reference : arXiv:hep-ph/9406431 equation no. (3.6 ) in this..
Currently, I am reading about counter term renormalization used to eliminate the infinities in the loop calculations involved in QFT calculations. I found somewhere that the insertion of mass counter terms in one loop diagrams is equivalent to the derivative of one loop diagram multiplied with mass counter term. I am not getting this point.. If anybody can help me with that it would be very helpful.. Thanks..
For reference : arXiv:hep-ph/9406431 equation no. (3.6 ) in this..
 

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vanhees71
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Have a look at my QFT manuscript:

https://itp.uni-frankfurt.de/~hees/publ/lect.pdf

In Chpt. 5 you find perturbative renormalization theory. The discussion of different renormalization schemes and how the derivatives wrt. mass to define the counter terms come into the game is in Sect. 5.11 about the renormalization group.
 
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mandy96
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Have a look at my QFT manuscript:

https://itp.uni-frankfurt.de/~hees/publ/lect.pdf

In Chpt. 5 you find perturbative renormalization theory. The discussion of different renormalization schemes and how the derivatives wrt. mass to define the counter terms come into the game is in Sect. 5.11 about the renormalization group.
Thanks... I will surely take a look...
 

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