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mandy96
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 TL;DR Summary

Currently, I am reading about counter term renormalization used to eliminate the infinities in the loop calculations involved in QFT calculations. I found somewhere that the insertion of mass counter terms in one loop diagrams is equivalent to the derivative of one loop diagram multiplied with mass counter term. I am not getting this point.. If anybody can help me with that it would be very helpful.. Thanks..
For reference : arXiv:hepph/9406431 equation no. (3.6 ) in this..
Currently, I am reading about counter term renormalization used to eliminate the infinities in the loop calculations involved in QFT calculations. I found somewhere that the insertion of mass counter terms in one loop diagrams is equivalent to the derivative of one loop diagram multiplied with mass counter term. I am not getting this point.. If anybody can help me with that it would be very helpful.. Thanks..
For reference : arXiv:hepph/9406431 equation no. (3.6 ) in this..
For reference : arXiv:hepph/9406431 equation no. (3.6 ) in this..