- #1

- 48

- 0

_{p}and C

_{v}and there's one point which is confusing me.

I understand that

and

and that this implies the following:

but isn't this equal to 0? Shouldn't the two partial derivatives on the right hand side, by the cyclic rule, multiply to -(∂S/∂T)

_{V}?

I know that I'm missing something here but I can't work out what it is.

Help appreciated!