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CP violation?

  1. Aug 20, 2010 #1
    Please teach me whether it is true or not,that the domination of particles vs antiparticles is caused by the CP violation in nature?
     
  2. jcsd
  3. Aug 20, 2010 #2

    ZapperZ

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    This is still being researched on, i.e. it is an active research area. So no one can tell you if it is true or not. It is ONE possible explanation.

    Zz.
     
  4. Aug 20, 2010 #3
    I've heard CP violation used so much for this, that I had no idea there were other explanations. Can someone point the way to other possible explanations? I'm curious to read up on some.
     
  5. Aug 20, 2010 #4

    ZapperZ

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    Read this:

    http://physics.aps.org/articles/v3/69

    especially on the mentioning of the "Sakharov three conditions" for baryon asymmetry.

    Zz.
     
  6. Aug 22, 2010 #5
    I've heard of the Sakharov conditions before, but they require CP violation in order to be an explanation for the current dominance of particles over anti-particles.

    Maybe I misunderstood your original comment or maybe I wasn't clear in my follow up, but is there a possible explanation for the abundance of particles vs antiparticles that doesn't require CP violation?
     
  7. Aug 22, 2010 #6

    mathman

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    One pure guess is that the universe started out (big bang) with an excess of matter.
     
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