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Can anyone tell me if this ODE has an analytic solution? And if it does, how the heck might I go about it?

[tex]

\left(\frac{1}{y^{2}}\frac{dy}{dx}\right)^{2}-\frac{A}{y^{3}}-\frac{B}{y^{2}}=D

[/tex]

[tex]

\left(\frac{1}{y^{2}}\frac{dy}{dx}\right)^{2}-\frac{A}{y^{3}}-\frac{B}{y^{2}}=D

[/tex]

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