Given a simple pendulum with a mass on the end and a massless string. The support point for the pendulum is moved laterally with an amplitude D at the resonant frequency. The damping is from the air and is considered viscous i.e. not turbulent. The difference between the resonant frequency and the frequency in the presence of damping is negligible. What is the amplitude of the oscillation in the steady state.
The Attempt at a Solution
I am trying to consider this conceptually. Because the damping is light, can I assume that the damping coefficient -> 0 and that the damping term in general cancels out? In that event, would the steady state amplitude end up being the same as the drive amplitude, D? I'm getting hung up trying to understand how the damping affects this situation because I'm told the resonant frequency is the same as the frequency in the presence of damping. Any thanks is much appreciated.