Dang normalisation constant

Hi, 2nd year physics student here

doing a past paper on quantum mechanics everything is going nice and dandy then this happens..

question: prove that the normalisation constant A is given by A = $$\frac{1}{2^1^/^2}$$ ($$\frac{a}{\pi}$$)^1/4

ok seems fairly straight forward but i keep getting this A = $$\frac{1}{2^1^/^2 (a*\pi)^1^/^4}$$

wave function ------> $$\Psi$$ (x,t) = A*2*[a*x*(e^-ax^2/2)(e^-3/2iwt)

useful integral: Inegration from - infinity to + infinity of x$$^{2}$$*e$$^{-C}$$$$^{x^{}2}$$ dx = $$\frac{1}{2}$$ ($$\frac{\pi}{C^{3}}$$)$$^{\frac{1}{2}}$$

any flawless mathematicians out there..?

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Redbelly98
Staff Emeritus
Homework Helper
Welcome to Physics Forums

any flawless mathematicians out there..?
Nope ... there's no such thing!

Can you show the integral you set up to calculate A?

any one?

hage567
Homework Helper
If you show more steps of your work, we might be able to spot where you went wrong.

you have the wave function, you have what the answer should be and you have the identity integral needed to solve this. I gave you the answer i kept receiving, my friend who is a theoretical physicist also received the same answer, if you do in fact obtain the right answer can you show a step by step of how it was obtained, if you received the same answer as us then there may be a problem with the actual question.

could have something to do with odd functions and even functions. I got a problem like this. It ended up being 0 because it was an odd function and with even functions you double.

Redbelly98
Staff Emeritus
Homework Helper
lol physics, I agree that A is proportional to a-1/4

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Matterwave